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From: Davide <d.famanelli_at_tiscalinet.it>
Date: Sat, 21 Aug 2001 12:05:38 +0200

Buongiorno
Domanda:
L'intensit� di un onda sonora � sempre proporzionale al quadrato
dell'ampiezza o questo � vero solo per onde sonore armoniche?

Grazie
Received on Tue Aug 21 2001 - 12:05:38 CEST

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